"Ye have heard that it hath been said, Thou shalt love thy neighbor, and hate thine enemy. But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them who despitefully use you, and persecute you; That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for He maketh His sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and the unjust. For if ye love them which love you, what reward have ye? Do not even the publicans the same? And if ye salute your bretheren only, what do ye more than others? Do not even the publican so? Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect." (Matthew: 5: 43-47[sic])
So why is it that when I use this simple passage to illustrate the identical point about tolerance of Muslims and everyone else, I am faulted for not understanding what is meant, but when a Christian uses it to fault Muslims for their intolerance, it's OK?